QID : 1 - In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Rain : Clouds : : ? : ?
Options:
1) Rice : Food
2) Grey : Colour
3) Heat : Sun
4) Snow : Mountains
Correct Answer: Heat : Sun
QID : 2 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Cactus : Plant : : Rice : ?
Options:
1) Basmati
2) Crop
3) White
4) Rabi
Correct Answer: Crop
QID : 3 - In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Pink : Colour : : Eagle : ?
Options:
1) Black
2) Symbol
3) Bird
4) Sky
Correct Answer: Bird
QID : 4 - In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.
TOM : NIG : : ? : ?
Options:
1) EAT : YUN
2) EAT : XXM
3) FAT : LMV
4) EAT : ZXC
Correct Answer: EAT : YUN
QID : 5 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
LERI : PJVN : : MONT : ?
Options:
1) WRTY
2) QTRY
3) RITY
4) RQYB
Correct Answer: QTRY
QID : 6 - In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SAT : WEX : : MET : ?
Options:
1) AQI
2) IYX
3) FHY
4) QIX
Correct Answer: QIX
QID : 7 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
43 : 7 : : 23 : ?
Options:
1) 6
2) 4
3) 7
4) 5
Correct Answer: 5
QID : 8 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
38 : 53 : : 53 : ?
Options:
1) 72
2) 68
3) 79
4) 87
Correct Answer: 68
QID : 9 - In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
9 : 81 : : 11 : ?
Options:
1) 78
2) 93
3) 121
4) 146
Correct Answer: 121
QID : 10 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) Goggle
2) Purse
3) Accessories
4) Belt
Correct Answer: Accessories
QID : 11 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) Grapes
2) Guava
3) Cauliflower
4) Orange
Correct Answer: Cauliflower
QID : 12 - In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) Sparrow
2) Rat
3) Ostrich
4) Parrot
Correct Answer: Rat
QID : 13 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) GCXTO
2) KGBXS
3) RNIEX
4) QMHDY
Correct Answer: RNIEX
QID : 14 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) SOKG
2) AWSO
3) RNJF
4) CYTP
Correct Answer: CYTP
QID : 15 - In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) KNQ
2) DGJ
3) WZB
4) TWZ
Correct Answer: WZB
QID : 16 - In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) 7 – 11
2) 12 – 16
3) 14 – 18
4) 9 – 15
Correct Answer: 9 – 15
QID : 17 - In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) 2 – 4
2) 3 – 9
3) 4 – 18
4) 5 – 25
Correct Answer: 4 – 18
QID : 18 - In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
Options:
1) 76 – 42
2) 92 – 20
3) 73 – 21
4) 93 – 27
Correct Answer: 92 – 20
QID : 19 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Flagrant
2. Flavour
3. Flatter
4. Flick
5. Flawed
Options:
1) 13254
2) 31254
3) 23541
4) 32541
Correct Answer: 13254
QID : 20 - According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at THIRD position?
1. Heritage
2. Helpful
3. Hectic
4. Heroic
5. Heroism
Options:
1) Hectic
2) Heritage
3) Heroic
4) Helpful
Correct Answer: Heritage
QID : 21 - From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?
Options:
1) Juvenile
2) Justify
3) Judge
4) Justice
Correct Answer: Juvenile
QID : 22 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
F, M, T, ?, H, O
Options:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) D
Correct Answer: A
QID : 23 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
ROK, LIE, FCY, ZWS, ?
Options:
1) LAQ
2) SRV
3) TQM
4) FMQ
Correct Answer: TQM
QID : 24 - A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
FAQ, LGW, RMC, ?, DYO
Options:
1) VIR
2) XSI
3) LSI
4) MIS
Correct Answer: XSI
QID : 25 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 22, 49, 113, 238, ?
Options:
1) 386
2) 532
3) 454
4) 576
Correct Answer: 454
QID : 26 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
42, 21, 21, 31.5, 63, ?
Options:
1) 169.75
2) 157.5
3) 152.5
4) 126.75
Correct Answer: 157.5
QID : 27 - In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 44, 135, 409, 1232, ?
Options:
1) 2962
2) 3340
3) 3702
4) 3406
Correct Answer: 3702
QID : 28 - E is sitting between D and A, B is to the right of A, C is at one of the ends and C and D are sitting next to each other. Who is sitting third?
Options:
1) D
2) A
3) B
4) E
Correct Answer: E
QID : 29 - Showing a photograph of a married couple B said that the gentleman in it was his father's father and A said that the lady in it was her mother. How is A related to B?
Options:
1) A is B's mother's sister
2) A is B's sister
3) A is B's Father's sister
4) A is B's mother
Correct Answer: A is B's Father's sister
QID : 30 - From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
MERCANTILE
Options:
1) truce
2) learn
3) trace
4) claim
Correct Answer: truce
QID : 31 - If OLYMPUS is coded as MJWKNSQ, then how will TEN be coded as?
Options:
1) RCL
2) GVM
3) SDM
4) UFO
Correct Answer: RCL
QID : 32 - In a certain code language, 1875 means 'wound the round watch', 6143 means 'a cake is round' and 7321 means 'watch a round wheel'. Find the code for 'watch'.
Options:
1) 1
2) 8
3) 5
4) 7
Correct Answer: 7
QID : 33 - In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.
96 x 4 ÷ 125 + 25 - 5 = ?
Options:
1) 23
2) 24
3) 50
4) 8
Correct Answer: 24
QID : 34 - If 17 $ 22 = 4 and 56 $ 13 = 7, then find the value of 71 $ 25 = ?
Options:
1) 56
2) 96
3) 1
4) 8
Correct Answer: 1
QID : 35 - If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does X # Y * Z $ W mean?
Options:
1) W is X's brother's wife
2) W is X's wife
3) W is X's mother
4) W is X's sister
Correct Answer: W is X's brother's wife
QID : 37 - Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
OOXXXXX, OXOXXXX, OXXOXXX, OXXXOXX, OXXXXOX, _____________.
Options:
1) XOXXXXO
2) XOXXXOX
3) OXXXOXX
4) OXXXXXO
Correct Answer: OXXXXXO
QID : 38 - A scientist is studying the behaviour of an ant. The ant picks food and walks 5 cm North, then it turns to its right and walks for another 11 cm. then it turns right and walks 3 cm, then it turns West and walks 15 cm, then finally it turns to its left and walks 2 cm. Where is the ant now with respect to its starting point?
Options:
1) 4 cm East
2) 26 cm West
3) 4 cm West
4) 26 cm East
Correct Answer: 4 cm West
QID : 39 - Two football players start running from the same point on the ground. Player A runs 10 km East, then turns to his left and runs 13 km. In the meanwhile Player B runs 6 km South, then he runs 3 km East, the he turns to his left and runs 19 km. Where is Player A with respect to Player B?
Options:
1) 7 km West
2) 7 km East
3) 13 km East
4) 13 km West
Correct Answer: 7 km East
QID : 40 - In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: Some chapters are physics
Statement II: All science is physics
Conclusion I: All science is chapters
Conclusion II: Some physics is science
Options:
1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Correct Answer: Only conclusion II follows
QID : 41 - In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: All success is victory
Statement II: All luck is success
Statement III: Some hard work is luck
Conclusion I: Some success is hard work
Conclusion II: Some hard work is victory
Conclusion III: No victory is luck
Options:
1) Only conclusions I and II follow
2) Only conclusions II and III follow
3) Only conclusions I and III follow
4) All conclusions I, II and III follow
Correct Answer: Only conclusions I and II follow
QID : 42 -
QID : 51 - Preliminary expenses are the examples of ________.
Options:
1) Capital expenditure
2) Capital gain
3) revenue expenditure
4) deferred revenue expenditure
Correct Answer: Capital expenditure
QID : 52 - Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?
Options:
1) Working in a call-centre
2) Tuition occupation
3) Bee-keeping
4) Banking
Correct Answer: Bee-keeping
QID : 53 - Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?
Options:
1) Most of assets is owned by a group of people
2) Most of assets is owned by big companies
3) Most of assets is owned by government
4) Most of assets is owned by an individual
Correct Answer: Most of assets is owned by government
QID : 54 - The percentage of India's population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is: _______.
Options:
1) 17.5%
2) 18.01%
3) 19.35%
4) 20.25%
Correct Answer: 17.5%
QID : 55 - Which of the following five year plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?
Options:
1) Eighth five year plan
2) Ninth five year plan
3) Tenth five year plan
4) Eleventh five year plan
Correct Answer: Eighth five year plan
QID : 56 - Which of the following thinker is associated with "the concept of political sovereignty"?
Options:
1) MacIver
2) Socrates
3) Rousseau
4) Plato
Correct Answer: Rousseau
QID : 57 - Who said, "A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state"?
Options:
1) Plato
2) Aristotle
3) G. B. Shaw
4) Rousseau
Correct Answer: Aristotle
QID : 58 - Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an _________.
Options:
1) Advisory Body
2) Coordinating Authority only
3) Supervisory Authority only
4) Administrative Authority
Correct Answer: Administrative Authority
QID : 59 - According to Indian Constitution, who decides the salary of members of Parliament?
Options:
1) Union Council of Ministers
2) Parliament
3) Supreme Court
4) President of India
Correct Answer: Parliament
QID : 60 - Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Options:
1) Eighth Schedule : Languages
2) Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office
3) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
4) Tenth Schedule : Defection related provisions
Correct Answer: Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office
Options:
1) 510 AD
2) 518 AD
3) 525 AD
4) 528 AD
Correct Answer: 518 AD
QID : 62 - Which among the following state 'Odantpuri' education center was situated?
Options:
1) Bengal
2) Gujarat
3) Bihar
4) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: Bihar
QID : 63 - Who was the founder of Bahmani Kingdom?
Options:
1) Hasan Gangu
2) Firoz Shah
3) Mahmud Gawan
4) Asaf Khan
Correct Answer: Hasan Gangu
QID : 64 - During whose rule in India did the Khilafat movement begin?
Options:
1) Lord Mountbatten
2) Lord Dalhousie
3) Lord Chelmsford
4) Lord Curzon
Correct Answer: Lord Chelmsford
QID : 65 - Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s?
Options:
1) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
2) Swami Vivekananada
3) Ramabai Ranade
4) Pandita Ramabai
Correct Answer: Pandita Ramabai
QID : 66 - Dasht-e Kavir Desert is located in which country?
Options:
1) Iran
2) Saudi Arab
3) Iraq
4) Sudan
Correct Answer: Iran
QID : 67 - Which of the following layers is called "Barysphere"?
Options:
1) Earth's most internal layer
2) Earth's intermediate layer
3) Earth's topmost layer
4) Lowest part of the atmosphere where climate changes occur
Correct Answer: Earth's most internal layer
QID : 68 - The Blue Nile river originates from which of the following lakes?
Options:
1) Lake Victoria
2) Lake Tana
3) Lake Edward
4) Lake Albert
Correct Answer: Lake Tana
QID : 69 - Which of the following states of India has the largest percentage of geographical area under forest as per the report of the Forest survey of India?
Options:
1) Manipur
2) Meghalaya
3) Mizoram
4) Nagaland
Correct Answer: Mizoram
QID : 70 - At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi combines to form River Ganga?
Options:
1) Haridwar
2) Rishikesh
3) Rudraprayag
4) Devprayag
Correct Answer: Devprayag
QID : 71 - 'Nirvana Fund' was set up by NSDC for financial help to _________.
Options:
1) Entrepreneurs from the bottom rungs of society
2) Displaced Kashmiri Pandits
3) Old age people having no means of livelihood
4) Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY but did not get any job.
Correct Answer: Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY but did not get any job.
QID : 72 - Nakul Swasthya Patra' is a scheme by the Government for which among the following purposes?
Options:
1) Wellness of animals
2) Wellness of animal owners
3) Taking care of lactating mother in the rural areas
4) Taking care of newborn babies in the rural areas
Correct Answer: Wellness of animals
QID : 73 - Which mine of India was in the news recently for becoming the country's first iron-ore mine to have a solar plant for reducing carbon footprint?
Options:
1) Talchar mine
2) Koraput mine
3) Noamundi mine
4) Ratnagiri mine
Correct Answer: Noamundi mine
QID : 74 - Where will the Summer Olympics be held in 2028?
Options:
1) Sydney
2) Paris
3) Los Angeles
4) Copenhagen
Correct Answer: Los Angeles
QID : 75 - Which country has won the 2017 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament?
Options:
1) Switzerland
2) Serbia
3) France
4) Belarus
Correct Answer: France
QID : 76 - “You are Unique” is written by ______.
Options:
1) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
2) Khushwant Singh
3) Taslima Nasrin
4) Arvind Adiga
Correct Answer: Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
QID : 77 - The third Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) Distinguished Indologist Award for the year 2017 was awarded to Japanese professor ______.
Options:
1) Hiroshi Marui
2) Shimamaru Marui
3) Nagasaki Marui
4) Toyota Marui
Correct Answer: Hiroshi Marui
QID : 78 - Which of the following city has became first Indian city to get UNESCO’s world heritage city tag?
Options:
1) Jaipur
2) Ahmedabad
3) Gandhi Nagar
4) Allahabad
Correct Answer: Ahmedabad
QID : 79 - In June 2017, which of the following countries have signed a protocol of co-operation in the field of archive?
Options:
1) India and Israel
2) India and Portugal
3) India and Netherland
4) India and Iran
Correct Answer: India and Portugal
QID : 80 - India has signed an agreement to provide USD 318 million as line of credit for developing railway sector of which of the following country?
Options:
1) Bangladesh
2) Nepal
3) China
4) Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: Sri Lanka
QID : 81 - Dot Matrix is a type of ______.
Options:
1) Tape
2) Disk
3) Printer
4) Bus
Correct Answer: Printer
QID : 82 - The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform ______.
Options:
1) Arithmetic operations
2) Logic operations
3) Fetch operations
4) All options are correct.
Correct Answer: All options are correct.
QID : 83 - In the modern periodic table metals, metalloids and non metals are found in which block?
Options:
1) s-Block
2) p-block
3) d-block
4) f-block
Correct Answer: p-block
QID : 84 - Cinnabar is ore of which of the following?
Options:
1) Magnesium
2) Aluminium
3) Mercury
4) Iron
Correct Answer: Mercury
QID : 85 - In which of the following mirror size of image formed is always equal to the size of object?
Options:
1) Convex mirror
2) Concave mirror
3) Plane mirror
4) Both convex and concave mirror
Correct Answer: Plane mirror
QID : 86 - Mass of a hydrogen atom is how many time the mass of an electron?
Options:
1) 1000
2) 8000
3) 1837
4) 5000
Correct Answer: 1837
QID : 87 - Which of the following are Fabrics that may contain polyester?
I. Polycot
II. Polywool
III. Terrycot
Options:
1) Only I and II
2) Only I and III
3) Only II and III
4) All I, II and III
Correct Answer: All I, II and III
QID : 88 - Which of the following term does NOT represent electrical power in circuit?
Options:
1) I2R
2) IR2
3) VI
4) V2/R
Correct Answer: IR2
QID : 89 - A positively charged particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Options:
1) toward south
2) toward east
3) downward
4) upward
Correct Answer: upward
QID : 90 - Which of the following is NOT positively charged?
Options:
1) Alpha particle
2) Proton
3) Helium nucleus
4) Electron
Correct Answer: Electron
QID : 91 - Which is a water soluble Vitamin?
Options:
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin C
3) Vitamin D
4) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
QID : 93 - How many number of chambers are there in human heart?
Options:
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
Correct Answer: Four
QID : 94 - Which of the following is NOT present in a matured stomata?
Options:
1) Plasmodesma
2) Chloroplast
3) Cell wall
4) Vacuole
Correct Answer: Plasmodesma
QID : 95 - What is/are the cause(s) of arise hypermetropia?
Options:
1) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
2) Elongation of the eye ball.
3) Focal length of the eye lens is too long.
4) No option is correct.
Correct Answer: Focal length of the eye lens is too long.
QID : 96 - Antibiotics are useful for which type of infections?
Options:
1) Only bacteria
2) Only virus
3) Both bacteria and virus
4) Neither bacteria nor virus
Correct Answer: Only bacteria
QID : 97 - Which one of the following is NOT responsible for water shortage?
Options:
1) Rapid growth of industries
2) Increasing population
3) Forestation
4) Mismanagement of water resources
Correct Answer: Forestation
QID : 98 - Which gas is major contributor to greenhouse effect?
Options:
1) Carbon dioxide
2) Chloroflurocarbon
3) Sulphur dioxide
4) Nitrogen dioxide
Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide
QID : 99 - Which of the following is NOT a major problem in development of resources?
Options:
1) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
2) Accumulation of resources in few hands.
3) An equitable distribution of resources.
4) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources.
Correct Answer: An equitable distribution of resources.
QID : 100 - Which of the following is NOT man made ecosystem?
Options:
1) Orchards
2) Home aquarium
3) Botanical gardens
4) Grassland
Correct Answer: Grassland
QID : 101 - Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?
Options:
1) Less than 20
2) 20 to 60
3) 60 to 80
4) Greater than 100
Correct Answer: Greater than 100
QID : 102 - Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?
Options:
1) Annular ring
2) Sapwood
3) Pith
4) Timber defects
Correct Answer: Annular ring
QID : 103 - Which of the following is determined with the help of Le Chatelier’s device?
Options:
1) Abrasion resistance
2) Chemical resistance
3) Soundness
4) Strength
Correct Answer: Soundness
QID : 104 - The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.
Options:
1) cement mortar
2) loose mortar
3) mortar of very low consistency
4) mortar having high w/c ratio
Correct Answer: cement mortar
QID : 105 - For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is _____.
Options:
1) 7 to 11%
2) 18 to 28%
3) 28 to 38%
4) 38 to 48%
Correct Answer: 7 to 11%
QID : 106 - Distempers are generally used to coat _____.
Options:
1) compound wall
2) external concrete surfaces
3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment
4) wood works
Correct Answer: interior surface which are not exposed to environment
QID : 107 - Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?
Options:
1) Calcium sulphate
2) Gypsum
3) Potassium carbide
4) Sodium chloride
Correct Answer: Gypsum
QID : 108 - In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is _____.
Options:
1) 5 to 8%
2) 8 to 16%
3) 20 to 25%
4) 35 to 45%
Correct Answer: 20 to 25%
QID : 109 - The slump test is performed to check the _____.
Options:
1) presence of water in cement
2) ratio of concrete ingredients
3) temperature resistance
4) workability of concrete
Correct Answer: workability of concrete
QID : 110 - The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is _____.
Options:
1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other
2) they are glued under the high pressure
3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives
4) they are prepared with the help of veneers
Correct Answer: plies are placed at the right angles with each other
QID : 111 - Which one of the following method is used for the approximate estimation?
Options:
1) Both central line and short wall and long wall method
2) Central line method
3) Plinth area method
4) Short wall and long wall method
Correct Answer: Plinth area method
QID : 112 - Accuracy in the measurement of the thickness of the slab or sectional dimension of column and beam (in centimetre) should be _____.
Options:
1) 0.5
2) 1
3) 5
4) 10
Correct Answer: 0.5
QID : 113 - Deduction at T-junction of the wall for total length of the central line is _____.
Options:
1) half of thickness of wall
2) no deduction
3) thickness of wall
4) twice of the thickness of wall
Correct Answer: half of thickness of wall
QID : 114 - For estimation of painted area of semi corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above plain area is _____.
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.14
3) 0.2
4) 0.25
Correct Answer: 0.1
QID : 115 - Scrap value of a property may be _____.
Options:
1) both negative or positive
2) constant
3) negative
4) positive
Correct Answer: both negative or positive
QID : 116 - What is the unit of measuring cornice?
Options:
1) Cubic metre
2) Number
3) Running metre
4) Square metre
Correct Answer: Running metre
QID : 117 - Calculate the number of bricks in 20 cubic metres brick works.
Options:
1) 500
2) 1000
3) 10000
4) 100000
Correct Answer: 10000
QID : 118 - Calculate the area (square metre) of the formwork required for a beam of 2 m span and cross section dimension of 400 mm x 200 mm.
Options:
1) 0.8
2) 0.16
3) 1.2
4) 2
Correct Answer: 2
QID : 119 - The cross section areas of three sections of an embankment at an interval of 40 m are 10 square metres, 15 square metres and 35 square metres. Calculate the quantity of earthwork for the embankment. Use prismoidal method.
Options:
1) 1200
2) 1400
3) 1500
4) 2400
Correct Answer: 1400
QID : 120 - Calculate the annual depreciation (Rs.) of a machine having initial cost of Rs. 10,000. The scrap value is Rs. 1,000 and useful life of 30 years.
Options:
1) 300
2) 367
3) 1333
4) 333333
Correct Answer: 300
QID : 121 - What is the difference between the sum of interior angles of plane triangle and spherical triangle for area of triangle 195 square kilometre on the Earth’s surface?
Options:
1) one degree
2) one minute
3) one second
4) one radian
Correct Answer: one second
QID : 122 - Which one of the following is the largest scale?
Options:
1) 1 :500
2) 1 :1000
3) 1 :2500
4) 1 :50000
Correct Answer: 1 :500
QID : 124 - Calculate the volume of the embankment (in cubic metre) using trapezoidal method, if the cross section areas of the three sections of an embankment at an interval of 30 m are 20 square metres, 40 square metres and 50 square metres.
Options:
1) 1100
2) 1150
3) 2250
4) 2350
Correct Answer: 2250
QID : 125 - Which one is the CORRECT order of the tapes based on their accuracy?
Options:
1) Linen tape > invar tape > metallic tape > steel tape
2) Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape
3) Metallic tape > steel tape > linen tape > invar tape
4) Metallic tape > steel tape > Invar tape > linen tape
Correct Answer: Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape
QID : 126 - In the leveling between two points A and B on the opposite sides of a pond, the level is first set up near the point A and staff reading on A and B are 2.5 m and 2.0 m respectively. Then the level is moved and set near the point B, staff reading on points A and B are 1.2 m and 1.7 m respectively. Calculate the difference of heights between the two points A and B (in metre).
Options:
1) 0
2) 0.5
3) 1
4) 1.85
Correct Answer: 0
QID : 127 - Calculate the combined correction for curvature and refraction (in m) for a distance of 2 km.
Options:
1) 0.045
2) 0.135
3) 0.269
4) 3.14
Correct Answer: 0.269
QID : 128 - In transit theodolite, the line of the sight can be reversed by revolving the telescope through _____.
Options:
1) 90° in horizontal plane
2) 90° in vertical plane
3) 180° in horizontal plane
4) 180° in vertical plane
Correct Answer: 180° in vertical plane
QID : 129 - Which one is the CORRECT sequence for the temporary adjustment of the theodolite?
Options:
1) Centering, elimination of parallax, leveling, and setting
2) Centering, setting, elimination of parallax and leveling
3) Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax
4) Setting, leveling, elimination of parallax and centering
Correct Answer: Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax
QID : 130 - Which of the following is used for determining the location of station occupied by the plane table?
Options:
1) Both intersection and radiation
2) Intersection method
3) Radiation method
4) Two point problem
Correct Answer: Two point problem
QID : 131 - Which of the following is responsible for the formation of residual soil?
Options:
1) Glaciers
2) Water
3) Wind
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 132 - The coefficient of gradation and the coefficient of uniformity of a given soil sample is 1.0 and 4.0 respectively. The ratio of effective size to the diameter through which 30% of the total mass is passed is ______.
Options:
1) 1.25
2) 1.5
3) 1.75
4) 2
Correct Answer: 2
QID : 133 - Which of the following shows the CORRECT order of increasing surface areas of the given soil?
Options:
1) Clay < silt < sand < colloids
2) Gravel < silt < colloids < clay
3) Sand < silt < clay < colloids
4) Silt < gravel < colloids < clay
Correct Answer: Sand < silt < clay < colloids
QID : 134 - What is the assumption made about back of wall, in the Rankine’s theory of earth pressure?
Options:
1) Plane and rough
2) Plane and smooth
3) Vertical and rough
4) Vertical and smooth
Correct Answer: Vertical and smooth
QID : 135 - Which of the following is CORRECT about the viscosity of gas?
Options:
1) Inversely proportional to the temperature
2) Increases with an increase in the temperature
3) Independent of pressure
4) Independent of temperature
Correct Answer: Increases with an increase in the temperature
QID : 136 - Pressure of 200 kPa is equivalent to the head of z metre of liquid having relative density 1.59. The value of z (m) is _____.
Options:
1) 11.6
2) 11.82
3) 12.82
4) 13.14
Correct Answer: 12.82
QID : 137 - Which one of the following statement is CORRECT about the center of buoyancy?
Options:
1) It is the point where buoyant force act.
2) It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
3) It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
4) It acts outside the body.
Correct Answer: It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
QID : 138 - A longitudinal rectangular surface is hanged into the water such that its top and bottom points are at depth of 1.5 m and 6.0 m respectively. The depth of center of pressure (m) from the top surface is _____.
Options:
1) 3.8
2) 4.2
3) 4.6
4) 4.8
Correct Answer: 4.2
QID : 140 - At what distance from the boundary layer, the value of the wall shear is three times of the turbulent shear?
Options:
1) 1/3 R
2) 1/2 R
3) 2/3 R
4) 3/4 R
Correct Answer: 2/3 R
QID : 141 - Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the stream lines and equipotential lines?
Options:
1) Both can be drawn graphically for viscous flow around any boundary.
2) Meshes formed by them are always squares.
3) They always meet orthogonally.
4) They can be calculated for all boundary conditions.
Correct Answer: They always meet orthogonally.
QID : 143 - Which of the following is CORRECT ratio for Froude number?
Options:
1) Compressive force to inertia force.
2) Inertia force to gravity force.
3) Inertia force to tension force.
4) Viscous force to inertia force.
Correct Answer: Inertia force to gravity force.
QID : 145 - Method of applying water directly to the root zone of the plant is called _____.
Options:
1) check flooding
2) drip method
3) furrow method
4) sprinkler irrigation
Correct Answer: drip method
QID : 146 - A field of 500 hectares is to be irrigated for a particular crop having 100 days base period. The total depth of water required by the crop is 100 cm. Calculate the duty of the water (in hectares per cubic metre).
Options:
1) 8.64
2) 57.87
3) 86.4
4) 864
Correct Answer: 864
QID : 147 - The traffic volume of a roadway is defined as the multiplication of _____.
Options:
1) speed and time headway
2) speed and distance way
3) traffic density and speed
4) time head way and distance headway
Correct Answer: traffic density and speed
QID : 148 - Calculate the equivalent radius (cm) of the resisting section of 20 cm slab, if the ratio of radius of wheel load distribution to the thickness of the slab is 2.
Options:
1) 20
2) 35.6
3) 40
4) 40.9
Correct Answer: 40
QID : 149 - On peak hourly demand, what is the maximum daily consumption for the city which have average daily consumption of 100,000 m3 ?
Options:
1) 140000
2) 170000
3) 200000
4) 270000
Correct Answer: 270000
QID : 150 - For which of the following, distribution mains is designed?
Options:
1) Average daily demand
2) Annual peak demand
3) Monthly peak demand
4) Maximum hourly demand on maximum day
Correct Answer: Maximum hourly demand on maximum day
QID : 151 - Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most of the loads applied to a building are environmental load.
B. Most of the loads are dead followed by live loads.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) Neither A nor B
Correct Answer: Only B
QID : 152 - How does an increase in the pitch of the roof affects the amount of load that can be placed on it?
Options:
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) Remains constant
4) Depends upon case
Correct Answer: It decreases
QID : 153 - What will be the rain load (in psf) if ds is 2 inches and dh is 1 inches?
Options:
1) 5.2
2) 10.4
3) 15.6
4) 20.8
Correct Answer: 15.6
QID : 154 - Concrete is:-
Options:
1) Good in compression, good in tension
2) Good in compression, weak in tension
3) Weak in compression, weak in tension
4) Weak in compression, good in tension
Correct Answer: Good in compression, weak in tension
QID : 155 - If in planar system, X parts/members are there with Y no. of forces, then condition for statically determinacy is:-
Options:
1) Y < 3X
Y < 3X
2) Y > 3X
Y > 3X
3) Y= 3X
Y= 3X
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Y= 3X
QID : 156 - If a system has more equations of equilibrium than no. of forces, then the system is:-
Options:
1) Improperly constrained
2) Partially constrained
3) Stable
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Partially constrained
QID : 157 - Which of the following material is not used in making trusses?
Options:
1) Wooden struts
2) Metal bars
3) Channel
4) Concrete
Correct Answer: Concrete
QID : 158 - In a truss it is assumed that the members are joined by____________.
Options:
1) Rough pins
2) Smooth pins
3) Either rough or smooth pins
4) None of these
Correct Answer: Smooth pins
QID : 159 - What is the major difference between truss and beam?
Options:
1) Beam can’t transmit load in vertical direction while truss can
2) Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can
3) Beam can’t transmit load in axial direction while truss can
4) Truss can’t transmit load in axial direction while beam can
Correct Answer: Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can
QID : 160 - Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions.
If B = 4, R = 3 and J = 4, then the truss is:-
Options:
1) Statically determinate
2) Statically indeterminate and stable
3) Stable
4) Unstable
Correct Answer: Unstable
QID : 161 - Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?
Options:
1) IS 456
2) IS 383
3) IS 565
4) IS 3012
Correct Answer: IS 456
QID : 162 - Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?
Options:
1) Hydroxylated carboxylic acid
2) Fluoro-silicate
3) Gypsum
4) Surkhi
Correct Answer: Hydroxylated carboxylic acid
QID : 163 - How many methods of batching of concrete are there?
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 5
4) 6
Correct Answer: 2
QID : 164 - Concrete is generally placed on a:
Options:
1) Form work
2) Stand
3) Mould
4) Platform
Correct Answer: Form work
QID : 165 - The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is taken as
Options:
1) one-fourth the width of the panel
2) half the width of the panel
3) half the diameter of the column
4) the diameter of the column
Correct Answer: half the width of the panel
QID : 166 - Permanent dimension changes due to loading of concrete is termed as:
Options:
1) Strain
2) Extent
3) Creep
4) Ambit
Correct Answer: Creep
QID : 167 - In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as:
Options:
1) 5N/mm2
2) 2N/mm2
3) 0.3N/mm2
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 168 - Flexure strength of concrete is determined as:
Options:
1) Modulus of rigidity
2) Modulus of rupture
3) Modulus of plasticity
4) Modulus of elasticity
Correct Answer: Modulus of rupture
QID : 169 - Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:
Options:
1) 1
2) 4
3) 2
4) 3
Correct Answer: 2
QID : 170 - Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?
Options:
1) IS 1500
2) IS 1221
3) IS 1400
4) IS 1661
Correct Answer: IS 1661
QID : 171 - In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:
Options:
1) Lime:cement:sand
2) Cement:Lime:sand
3) Lime:sand:gravel
4) Cement:sand:gravel
Correct Answer: Cement:Lime:sand
QID : 172 - On which of the following does the correct proportion of ingredients of concrete depend upon?
Options:
1) bulking of sand
2) water content
3) absorption and workability
4) All option are correct
Correct Answer: All option are correct
QID : 174 - Which of the following statements is false?
Options:
1) Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content
2) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete
3) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains
4) All option are correct
Correct Answer: All option are correct
QID : 175 - Which of the following statements is false?
Options:
1) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm
2) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks
3) Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 176 - Which of the following statements is false?
Options:
1) With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
2) With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases
3) After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%
4) The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement gains strength with time
Correct Answer: With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
QID : 177 - For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, what is the quantity of water required per bag?
Options:
1) 10 kg
2) 12 kg
3) 14 kg
4) None of these
Correct Answer: 14 kg
QID : 178 - Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of
Options:
1) 100 m
2) 200 m
3) 300 m
4) 400 m
Correct Answer: 400 m
QID : 179 - The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.
Options:
1) Compression
2) Tensioning
3) Shearing
4) Bending
Correct Answer: Tensioning
QID : 182 - For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum positive radial moment is
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Correct Answer: 2
QID : 184 - The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between
Options:
1) 6 cm to 7.5 cm
2) 8 cm to 10 cm
3) 10 cm to 12 cm
4) None of these
Correct Answer: 8 cm to 10 cm
QID : 185 - A foundation rests on which of the following?
Options:
1) base of the foundation
2) sub grade
3) foundation soil
4) Both Sub grade and foundation soil
Correct Answer: Both Sub grade and foundation soil
QID : 186 - Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept uniform throughout
2) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is increased gradually towards the edge
3) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge
4) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept zero at the edge
Correct Answer: To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge
QID : 187 - The weight of a foundation is assumed as which of the following?
Options:
1) 5% of wall weight
2) 7% of wall weight
3) 10% of wall weight
4) 12% of wall weight
Correct Answer: 10% of wall weight
QID : 188 - If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally adopted is
Options:
1) Square
2) rectangular
3) trapezoidal
4) triangular
Correct Answer: rectangular
QID : 189 - Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit is known as
Options:
1) Guest’s or Trecas’ theory
2) St.Venant’s theory
3) Rankine’s theory
4) Haig’s theory
Correct Answer: Guest’s or Trecas’ theory
QID : 191 - When not specified, the volume of steel in R.C.C. work is taken as:-
Options:
1) 1% to 1.6% of R.C.C. volume
2) 2% to 4% of R.C.C. volume
3) 4% to 6% of R.C.C. volume
4) 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume
Correct Answer: 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume
QID : 192 - The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is:
A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 3/4
D. 4/3
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only
Correct Answer: D Only
QID : 193 - The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called
Options:
1) ductility
2) plasticity
3) elasticity
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 194 - What is the limit to Poisson's ratio?
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.2
3) 0.3
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 195 - Among the following, which is least elastic?
Options:
1) Iron
2) Copper
3) Both Copper and Silver
4) Rubber
Correct Answer: Rubber
QID : 196 - Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7, then the ratio of modulius of elasticity of the two materials is
A. 4:7
B. 4:10
C. 16:49
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 197 - If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under:
Options:
1) tension
2) shear
3) torsion
4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these
QID : 198 - Pick up the incorrect statement from the following : The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly proportional to
Options:
1) modulus of rigidity
2) angle of twist
3) reciprocal of the length of the shaft
4) moment of inertia of the shaft section.
Correct Answer: moment of inertia of the shaft section.
QID : 199 - Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its cross section area_______.
Options:
1) plus the area of the rivet holes
2) divided by the area of rivet holes
3) multiplied by the area of the rivet holes
4) minus the area of the rivet holes
Correct Answer: minus the area of the rivet holes
QID : 200 - When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from
Options:
1) each web
2) each flange
3) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more
4) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less
Correct Answer: each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less