Junior Engineer Electrical Exam

1. Substances having a permeability less than the permeability of free space, are known as

  1. Ferromagnetic
  2. Bi-polar
  3. Paramagnetic
  4. Diamagnetic

2. De-guassing is the process of

  1. Removing gases from materials
  2. Removal of magnetic impurities
  3. De-magnetizing metallic parts
  4. Hysteresis loss

3. Bohr magneton is unit of

  1. Removing gases from materials
  2. Removal of magnetic impurities
  3. De-magnetizing metallic parts
  4. Hysteresis loss

4. Two different isotopes of an element have different

  1. Number of neutrons
  2. Number of electrons
  3. Atomic number
  4. Number of protons

5. Which of the following material is commonly used for making magnetic recording tape?

  1. Ferric oxide
  2. Silicon iron
  3. Iron Dust
  4. Iron

6. What is the angle between the pole and stay?

  1. 30°
  2. 45°
  3. 60°
  4. 10°

7. How many earth connections are required for the motor frame as per the IE Rule-61?

  1. One
  2. Two separate and distinct
  3. Three separate and distinct
  4. All of these

8. How is the ballast resistance connected with the choke?

  1. Parallel
  2. Series
  3. Can be connected in either way.
  4. Both A and B

9. What is the specification of GI earth plate?

  1. 60 cm *60 cm *3.5 mm
  2. 60 cm *60 cm *6mm
  3. 60 cm*60cm*1mm.
  4. 60 cm *60 cm *5.2 mm

10. Which type of cable does not require bedding?

  1. Paper insulated lead covered cables
  2. PVC cables
  3. Both (A) and (b)
  4. None of these

11. What is the maximum distance between the two successive cleats?

  1. 0.25 m
  2. 0.5 m
  3. 0.9 m
  4. 1.25 m

12. Spot welding is used to weld metal pieces whose thickness

  1. Should be greater than 12 mm
  2. Lesser than 12 mm
  3. Lies between 15 to 20 mm
  4. Greater than 20 mm

13. A low-frequency supply is given to the single-phase AC system for track electrification because

  1. It improves commutation
  2. Increases efficiency
  3. Improves power factor
  4. All of these

14. Which among the following is mechanical braking?

  1. Pneumatic braking
  2. Plugging
  3. Dynamic braking
  4. Regenerative braking

15. Three phase induction motor is not suitable for traction purpose because

  1. Low starting torque
  2. High starting current
  3. Constant speed operation
  4. All of these

16. The normal voltage used in directional heating is

  1. 5 kV
  2. 15 kV
  3. 33 kV
  4. 66 kV

17. In an arc furnace, the choke is provided to

  1. Improve power factor
  2. Stabilize the arc
  3. Reduce the surge severity
  4. All of these

18. If rated dc voltage is applied instead of ac to the primary of transformer

  1. Secondary of transformer will burn
  2. Secondary voltage will be excessively high
  3. There will be no secondary voltage
  4. There will be no secondary voltage

19. A transformer with an output voltage of 4200 V is supplied at 230 V. if the secondary has 2100 turns. Calculate the no. of primary turns.

  1. 115
  2. 125
  3. 135
  4. 145

20. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb is higher than the cold resisitance because the temperature coefficient of the filament is

  1. Negative
  2. Infinite
  3. Zero
  4. Positive

21. A single phase A.C. voltage source has 200 V rms and a system connected consumes an active power of 300 W. What is the reactive power consumed by the system if 2.5 A rms current is drawn?

  1. 100 VAR
  2. 200 VAR
  3. 300 VAR
  4. 400 VAR

22. Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?

  1. 1 A DC current
  2. 50 A DC current
  3. 1 A,60 c/s AC current
  4. 1A, 490 c/s AC current

23. In a series RLC circuit, if the frequency is less than the resonant frequency, then

  1. Circuit is capacitive.
  2. Circuit is inductive.
  3. Circuit is resistive.
  4. No effect.

24. The conductivity of a metal is determined by

  1. The no. of valance electrons per atom.
  2. The electrons concentration and mobility of the electrons.
  3. Both (A) and (B)
  4. None of these

25. A superconductor may be used for generating

  1. Voltage
  2. Pressure
  3. Temperature
  4. Magnetic field

26. Increase in percentage of carbon in carbon steel reduces

  1. Resistivity
  2. Coercive force
  3. Permeability
  4. Retentivity

27. The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization to zero is called

  1. Retentivity
  2. Coercivity
  3. Hysteresis
  4. Saturation

28. A transformer transforms

  1. Voltage
  2. Current
  3. Voltage and current
  4. Frequency

29. In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz and 100 W at 60 Hz under the condition of same flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 hz will be

  1. 64 W
  2. 73 W
  3. 82 W
  4. 91 W

30. In a transformer, the primary ampere turns are counter balanced by

  1. Secondary ampere-turns
  2. Primary Flux
  3. Increase in mutual flux
  4. Increase in secondary current

31. The voltage regulation of a transformer having 02% resistance and 05% reactance, at full load, 0.8 power factor lagging is

  1. 6 %
  2. -4.6%
  3. -1.4%
  4. 4%

32. A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity power factor. Efficiency at half load at same power factor will be

  1. 86.7%
  2. 88.26%
  3. 88.9%
  4. 87.8%

33. Grain oriented laminated sheet steel in a transformer reduces

  1. Copper loss
  2. Eddy current loss
  3. Hysteresis loss
  4. None of these

34. The windings used in a 03 phase shell type transformer is ____ type.

  1. Circular
  2. Cylindrical
  3. Sandwich
  4. Rectangular

35. Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load depending upon which of the followings?

  1. Magnetizing current
  2. Leakage reactance
  3. Per unit impedance
  4. Efficiency

36. Stray losses in an electrical machine are sum of

  1. Iron and mechanical losses
  2. Copper and Iron losses
  3. Copper and mechanical losses
  4. None of these

37. The teeth in an armature of a DC machine are sometimes skewed. This is done to reduce

  1. Hysteresis loss
  2. Copper loss
  3. Eddy current loss
  4. Vibrations

38. An 8 pole DC generator has a single wave wound armature containing 32 coils of 6 turns each. The flux per pole is 0.06 Wb. If the generator is running at 250 RPM, the induced armature voltage will be

  1. 96 V
  2. 192 V
  3. 384 V
  4. 768 V

39. In a DC machine, the no. of mechanical and electrical degrees will be same DC the no. of poles in the machine are

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 8
  4. 1

40. The output indicated on the name plate of any motor is always the

  1. Gross power
  2. Power drawn in kVA
  3. Power drawn in kW
  4. Output power to shaft

41. The efficiency of DC motor when developing maximum power will be about

  1. 100%
  2. 50%
  3. Less than 50%
  4. More than 50%

42. At 1200 RPM, the induced emf of a DC machine is 200 V. For an armature current of 15 A, the electromagnetic torque produced will be

  1. 23.8 Nm
  2. 238 Nm
  3. 2000 Nm
  4. 3000 Nm

43. The efficiency of a DC series machine cannot be determined by swinburne’s

  1. A series motor has very high starting torque.
  2. A series motor draws an excessive current from the supply mains on no load.
  3. A series motor runs at dangerously high speed on no load.
  4. All of these.

44. Three-phase alternators are invariably connected in Star so as to

  1. Reduce the size of stator conductors used.
  2. Increase the terminal voltage.
  3. Reduce magnetic losses.
  4. All of these

45. The armature reaction effect in a synchronous machine depends on

  1. Load current
  2. F. of the load
  3. Speed of the machine
  4. Both A and B

46. Synchronous motors generally have

  1. Salient pole rotor
  2. Smooth cylindrical rotor
  3. Either salient pole or smooth cylindrical rotor
  4. None of these

47. A 10 pole, 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is driven by 60 Hz synchronous motor. What is the no. of poles for the synchronous motor?

  1. 48
  2. 12
  3. 24
  4. 16

48. Variation in DC excitation of a synchronous motor causes variations in

  1. Speed of motor
  2. Power factor
  3. Armature current
  4. Both armature current and P.F.

49. The phenomenon of oscillation of the rotor of a synchronous motor about its equilibrium position corresponding to new load on sudden throwing off or increase load is called

  1. Swinging
  2. Crawling
  3. Hunting
  4. None of these

50. A reluctance motor

  1. Is a self-starting motor.
  2. Runs at a constant speed
  3. Needs no DC excitation for its rotor.
  4. Starts as an induction motor and runs as a synchronous motor.

51. The rotor of a stepper motor has

  1. No Winding
  2. No Commutator
  3. No Brushes
  4. All of these

52. In an induction motor, if the air gap is increased, then

  1. Its speed will reduce.
  2. Its efficiency will reduce.
  3. Its power factor will reduce.
  4. Its breakdown torque will reduce.

53. The slip of a 400 V, 3 phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz machine running at 1440 rpm is

  1. 6%
  2. 5%
  3. 4%
  4. 3%

54. The frequency of rotor current at standstill is equal to

  1. Zero
  2. 2f
  3. F
  4. 3f

55. In a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has

  1. High resistance and high leakage reactance.
  2. High resistance and low leakage reactance.
  3. Low resistance and high leakage reactance.
  4. Low resistance and low leakage reactance.

56. The speed of a 3 phase slip ring induction motor can be controlled from the rotor side by

  1. Changing the supply voltage
  2. Changing the supply frequency
  3. Rheostatic control
  4. None of these

57. Capacitor start and capacitor run motors are used in

  1. Hoists
  2. Rolling Mills
  3. Mining
  4. Refrigerators

58. The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to

  1. Compensate for skin effect
  2. Take care of surges
  3. Provide additional mechanical strength
  4. Reduce inductance.

59. The string efficiency of a string of suspension insulators is dependent on

  1. Size of the insulators
  2. No. of discs in the string
  3. Size of tower
  4. None of these

60. Which one of the followings does not have an effect on Corona?

  1. Spacing between conductors
  2. Conductor size
  3. Line voltage
  4. Length of conductor

61. When a fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line, first

  1. Circuit breaker operates and then relay
  2. Relay operates and then the circuit breaker
  3. Relay operates and then successively the isolator and the circuit breaker
  4. None of these

62. Which motor should not be used in a centrifugal pump?

  1. Shunt
  2. Series
  3. Cumulatively compound
  4. Differentially compound

63. For quick reversal, the motor preferred is

  1. DC motor
  2. Squirrel cage induction motor
  3. Slip ring induction motor
  4. Synchronous motor

64. In an electric press, mica is used

  1. For induction heating
  2. For dielectric heating
  3. As an insulator
  4. For improvement of P.F.

65. The power factor at which the direct are furnace operator is

  1. Low lagging
  2. Low leading
  3. Unity
  4. High leading

66. An advantage of PMMC instruments is that it

  1. Is free from friction error
  2. Has high torque to weight ratio of moving parts
  3. Has low torque to weight ratio
  4. Can be used on both AC and DC

67. Dynamometer type wattmeter are suitable for

  1. Both AC and DC circuits
  2. Only AC circuits
  3. Only DC circuits
  4. Only high voltage AC circuits

68. Which of the following effects can be caused by a rise in the temperature?

  1. Increase in MOSFET current
  2. Increase in BJT current and decrease in MOSFET current
  3. Decrease in MOSFET current
  4. Decrease in BJT current

69. An increase in the base recombination of a BJT will increase

  1. The common emitter DC current gain. β
  2. The breakdown voltage, BV
  3. The unity gain cut off frequency.
  4. The transconductance. gm

70. Negative feedback in an amplifier

  1. Reduces gain
  2. Increases noise
  3. Reduces gain and bandwidth
  4. Increase frequency and phase distortions

71. An ideal op-amp has which of the following characteristics?

  1. RI=∞        AV=∞              R0=0
  2. RI=0        AV=∞              R0=0
  3. RI=∞       AV=∞              R0=∞
  4. RI=0       AV=∞              R0=∞

72. For the circuit shown below, the output (F) is given by

  1. F = 1
  2. F = 0
  3. F = X
  4. F = X bar

73. The 2’s complement representation of 17 is

  1. 01110
  2. 11110
  3. 101111
  4. 10001

74. The minimum no. of 2 to 1 multiplexes required to realize a 4 to 1 multiplexer is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

75. Which is the important factor in the steady-state characteristics of a MOSFET?

  1. Current Gain
  2. Transconductance
  3. Output resistance
  4. Drain-source voltage

76. On firing an SCR, the gate pulse is removed, the current in the SCR will

  1. Remains the same
  2. Immediately falls to zero
  3. Rise up
  4. Rise a little and then falls to zero

77. The snubber circuit is used in thyristor circuits for

  1. Triggering
  2. Dv/dt protection
  3. Di/dt protection
  4. Phase shifting

78. UJT is known as

  1. A voltage controlled device
  2. Current controlled device
  3. Relaxation oscillator
  4. None of these

79. A three to three phase cyclo-convertor requires

  1. 18 SCRs for 6 pulse device
  2. 36 SCRs for 3 pulse device
  3. 36 SCRs for 6 pulse device
  4. None of these

80. Which of the following were the most standardized products of the Harappans?

  1. Bricks
  2. Pottery
  3. Statues
  4. Terracottas

81. Who was referred to as Vrishala and Kulahina?

  1. Ashoka
  2. Bindusara
  3. Kunala
  4. Chandragupta Maurya

82. The well-known ancient physician Charaka was a contemporary of

  1. Nahapana
  2. Sri Satakarni
  3. Kanishka
  4. Rudradaman-1

83. Which dynasty emerged at the close of the eleventh century?

  1. Pala dynasty
  2. Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty
  3. Rashtrakuta dynasty
  4. None of these

84. Which Sultan of Delhi laid the foundation of a permanent standing army?

  1. Qutbuddin Aibak
  2. Balban
  3. Alauddin Khalji
  4. Ibrahim Lodhi

85. Which of the following Peshwas wanted India to be a Hindu Padshahi?

  1. Baji Rao-1
  2. Balaji Vishwanath
  3. Balaji Baji Rao
  4. Madhav Rao

86. Dayanand Saraswati used Hindi for his preachings and writings, under the influence of

  1. Keshab Chandra Sen
  2. M.G.Ranade
  3. Raja Rammohan Roy
  4. Swami Vivekanand

87. Who was the president of the Indian National Congress in 1927 at its Madras Session?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Subhash Chandra Bose
  3. M.A. Ansari
  4. Motilal Nehru

88. The earthquake wave which passes through the core of the earth is the

  1. Primary (P) wave
  2. Secondary (S) wave
  3. Surface (L) wave
  4. Longitudinal wave

89. Roaring Forties and Furious Fifties are related to the

  1. Trade Winds
  2. Planetary winds
  3. Westerlies
  4. Polar Winds

90. Which of the following ocean currents belongs to Indian Ocean?

  1. Agulhas current
  2. Labrador current
  3. Canary current
  4. Antilles current

91. The soil that occurs in coniferous forest region is

  1. Podzol Soil
  2. Laterite Soil
  3. Alluvial Soil
  4. Black Soil

92. The most important factor which affects the distribution of the population is

  1. Climate
  2. Soil
  3. Relief
  4. Socio-economic factors

93. Nokrek is the highest peak of the

  1. Mikir Hills
  2. Garo Hills
  3. Khasi Hills
  4. Jaintia Hills

94. Which of the following rivers is a tributary of the Ganga on its right bank?

  1. Son
  2. Ghagara
  3. Ramganga
  4. Gandak

95. All the following states have important iron ore field, except:

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Tamil Nadu

96. Which of the following States does not have tea plantations?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Tamil Nadu

97. Which of the following Places is not the centre for manufacturing aircraft?

  1. Koraput
  2. Lucknow
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Adampur

98. The State Financial Corporations have given assistance mainly to develop

  1. Agriculture farms
  2. Cottage industries
  3. Medium and small-scale industries
  4. Large-scale industries

99. By eradicating poverty who wished to ‘wipe out every tear from every eye’?

  1. J. L. Nehru
  2. Rabindranath Tagore
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. None of these

100. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers to

  1. Foreign country
  2. Internet banking
  3. US dollars
  4. Credit card

101. Which of the following is the major sources of Gross Tax Revenue for the Government of India?

  1. Income Tax
  2. Corporation tax
  3. Customs duty
  4. Service tax

102. The new National Food Security Mission (NFSM) aims at ensuring an adequate supply of

  1. Rice, wheat, pulses
  2. Rice, cereals, wheat
  3. Wheat, cereals, pulses
  4. Rice, cereals, pulses

103. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd Amendment of the Constitution are mentioned in

  1. Tenth Schedule
  2. Eleventh Schedule
  3. Twelfth Schedule
  4. Thirteenth Schedule

104. Who considered the right to constitutional remedies as very ‘heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution?

  1. M.K. Gandhi
  2. J.L. Nehru
  3. B. R. Ambedkar
  4. Rajendra Prasad

105. The Department of Atomic energy is under the administration of

  1. Prime Minister’s Office
  2. Ministry of Science and Technology
  3. Ministry of Power
  4. Cabinet Secretary

106. Chinese Parliament is known as

  1. National People’s Congress
  2. National Assembly
  3. Diet
  4. Shora

107. The Council of Ministers of Indian Union is collectively responsible to the

  1. President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Rajya Sabha
  4. None of these

108. Who has the right to seek an advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?

  1. Prime minister
  2. President
  3. Any judge of the High Court
  4. All of these

109. Which of the following State/Union Territory has a Legislative Assembly consisting of only 30 members?

  1. Puducherry
  2. Mizoram
  3. Goa
  4. All of these

110. The fuel used in atomic power reactors in India mainly

  1. Plutonium-239
  2. Enriched Uranium
  3. Deuterium
  4. None of these
111. Bronze is a / an
  1. Element
  2. Chemical compound
  3. Alloy
  4. None of these

112. A fat-soluble Vitamin is

  1. Vitamin-B
  2. Vitamin –C
  3. Vitamin-D
  4. None of these

113. Artificial dialysis is recommended in malfunctioning of

  1. Pancreas
  2. Heart
  3. Gall bladder
  4. None of these

114. If the letters of the word ‘VERTICAL’ are arranged alphabetically, how many letters will remain at the same position?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None of these

115. If ‘MUSICAL’ is written as ‘KWQKACJ’, then how can ‘SPRINKLE’ be written?

  1. QRBKCNJG
  2. QNPGLIJC
  3. QRPKLMJG
  4. URTKPMNG

116. The hot spring of Tatapani is situated in which of the following districts of H.P.?

  1. Shimla
  2. Lahaul &spiti
  3. Kinnaur
  4. Mandi

117. Chandra Glacier falls in which district of H.P.?

  1. Lahaul & Spiti
  2. Chamba
  3. Kullu
  4. Kangra

118. In which year was Himachal Pradesh made a Union Territory?

  1. 1948
  2. 1951
  3. 1954
  4. 1956

119. Which of the following festivals of H.P. is celebrated in the month of Chaitra?

  1. Rally puja
  2. Gung naumi
  3. Bishu
  4. Khogal

120. Which of the following is the first country to successfully land robotic rovers on an asteroid Ryugu recently?

  1. USA
  2. China
  3. Japan
  4. Russia

121. India has made alliance recently with which country to eliminate TB?

  1. USA
  2. Israel
  3. Germany
  4. Australia

122. Who has won the 2018 presidential Election of Maldives?

  1. Mohamed Waheed Hassan
  2. Abdulla Yameen
  3. Ibrahim Mohamed Solih
  4. Mohamed Nasheed

123. Who has won the Women’s Singles 2018 China Open Badminton title?

  1. Akane Yamaguchi
  2. Carolina Marin
  3. P.V. Sindhu
  4. Nozomil Okuhara

124. Meaning of the idiom ‘To bank upon’ is

  1. To hope
  2. To depend
  3. To evolve
  4. To harness

125. She come _____ a family which has a passion _____ reading books.

  1. From, in
  2. Off, for
  3. Of, for
  4. Of , in

126. Antonym of the word ‘Extant’ is

  1. Existing
  2. Defunct
  3. Employed
  4. Surviving

127. अर्थ से प्रत्यय बनता है

  1. अर्थी
  2. अरथा
  3. दानार्थ
  4. आर्थिक

128. ‘रजनी – रमणी’ युग्म शब्द का अर्थ है

  1. स्त्री, रात
  2. रात, स्त्री
  3. सूर्य, चन्द्रमा
  4. चन्द्रमा, सूर्य

129. ‘आजीवन’ मे समास है

  1. द्वन्द
  2. अव्यईभाव
  3. बहुब्रीहि
  4. तत्पुरुष

130. In forward-bias portion of the thyristor’s V-1 characteristics, the number of stable operating regions is

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None of these

131. The dv/dt effect in SCR can result in

  1. Low capacitive charging current
  2. False triggering
  3. Increased junction capacitance
  4. High rate of rise of anode voltage

132. The Snubber circuit is used in thyristor circuits for

  1. Triggering
  2. Dv/dt protection
  3. Di/dt protection
  4. Phase shifting

133. A UJT has

  1. Stable negative resistance characteristics
  2. Low firing current
  3. Use as a waveform generator
  4. All of these

134. When UJT is used for triggering an SCR,  the waveshape of the signal obtaine from UJT circuit is

  1. Sine wave
  2. Sawtooth wave
  3. Trapezoidal wave
  4. Ssquare wave

135. A power chopper converts

  1. Ac to dc
  2. Dc to dc
  3. De to ac
  4. Ac to ac

136. Which of the following memory used one transistor and one capacitor as basic memory unit ?

  1. SRAM
  2. DRAM
  3. Both (A) and (B)
  4. None of these

137. Temperature variation is a/an

  1. Digital quantity
  2. Analog quantity
  3. Either digital or analog quantity
  4. None of these

138. Boolean algebra is also known as

  1. Gate algebra
  2. Transistor
  3. Switching algebra
  4. Counting algebra

139. 2’s complement of the number of 1010101 is

  1. 0101010
  2. 0101011
  3. 1101010
  4. 1110011

140. A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other images into digital form is

  1. Key-board
  2. Plotter
  3. Scanner
  4. OMR

141. First generation of computer was based on which technology?

  1. Transistor
  2. LSI
  3. VLSI
  4. Vacuum tube

142. An error is also known as

  1. Bug
  2. Debug
  3. Cursor
  4. Icon

143. Permanent magnets are normally made of

  1. Alnico alloys
  2. Aluminium
  3. Cast iron
  4. Wrought iron

144. The unit of retentivity is

  1. Weber
  2. Weber/sq.m.
  3. Ampere turn/meter
  4. Ampere turns

145. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum

  1. At 63.2% of its maximum steady value
  2. At the start of the current flow
  3. At the end of the current flow
  4. After one time constant

146. For audio frequency applications, the popular oscillator used is

  1. Wein bridge oscillator
  2. Hartley oscillator
  3. Crystal oscillator
  4. Phase shift oscillator

147. A diode (p-n junction) when reverse biased act as

  1. On switch
  2. Zener diode
  3. Capacitor
  4. Off switch

148. An op-amplifier comparator circuit employs

  1. No feedback
  2. +ve feedback
  3. –ve feedback
  4. Both (A) and (B)

149. Which of the following cannot actually move?

  1. Lons
  2. Holes
  3. Electrons
  4. All of these

150. In RC series circuit total voltage is 10 V and voltage across resistor is 6 V, then what is voltage across capacitor ?

  1. 4 V
  2. 8V
  3. 16V
  4. 10V

151. In RLC parallel circuit, current through inductor is more than current through capacitor, then what is the power factor of the circuit ?

  1. Lagging
  2. Leading
  3. Unity
  4. Zero

152. A delta connected capacitor bank is preferred over a Star connected bank, to ensure

  1. Lesser capacitance
  2. Easy calculation
  3. Easier connection
  4. All of these

153. The superposition Theorem is obeyed by

  1. Linear networks
  2. Non-Linear networks
  3. Lateral Networks
  4. Trilateral Networks

154. The symbol used for representing independent sources is

  1. Diamond
  2. Square
  3. Circle
  4. Triangle

155. What should be the minimum depth (in metre) of cable trench to dug for laying of 1.1 kV ?

  1. 0.75
  2. 0.90
  3. 1.05
  4. 1.20

156. The hydel power plant of run-off river type should be provided with pondage

  1. Firm capacity of the plant is increased.
  2. Operating head is controlled.
  3. Pressure inside the turbine casing remains constant
  4. Kinetic energy of the running water is fully utilized.

157. If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting is 50 % and CT ratio is 400:5, then plug setting multiplier will be

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 25
  4. 50

158. The number of strands of ACSR conductor for 4-layers transmission line is

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 37
  4. 29

159. In a 3-layer ACSR conductor, if diameter of each strand is d, then total diameter

  1. d
  2. 2d
  3. 3d
  4. 5d

160. The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar filed is

  1. AC
  2. DC
  3. AC & DC both
  4. None of these

161. Neglecting all losses, how is the developed torque (T) of a dc separately excited motor, operating under constant terminal voltage, related to its output power (P) ?

  1. T ∞p1/2
  2. T∞ P
  3. T2∞ P3
  4. T is independent of P.

162. Pole shoe of a dc machine is laminated for the purpose of

  1. Decreasing hysteresis loss
  2. Decreasing eddy current loss
  3. Manufacturing ease
  4. Decreasing both hysteresis & eddy current loss

163. Lap winding is preferred for which type of machines?

  1. Low current & low voltage
  2. High current & high voltage
  3. High current and low voltage
  4. Low current & high voltage

164. Demagnetization effects which of the following?

  1. Commutation
  2. Reduction in main field flux
  3. Reduces the terminal voltage
  4. Both (A) and (B)

165. Which of the following is/are effects of armature reaction?

  1. Increases the iron loss
  2. Increases the maintenance & repair
  3. Increases the design cost
  4. All of these

166. The metric system is called

  1. CGS
  2. MKS
  3. SI
  4. None of these

167. Which of the quantity consists of SI unit as Candela?

  1. Velocity
  2. Impulse
  3. Luminous intensity
  4. Force

168. Hysteresis in an instrument means

  1. The change in same reading when input is first increased and then reduced
  2. The reliability of the instrument
  3. The repeatability of the instrument
  4. The inaccuracy due to the change in temperature

169. The chemical effect of the current is used in

  1. DC ampere-hour meter
  2. DC ammeter
  3. DC energy meter
  4. None of these

170. The most suitable primary standard for frequency is

  1. Rubidium vapour standard
  2. Hydrogen maser standard
  3. Quartz standard
  4. Caesium beam standard
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